This article talks about Ashcroft's refusal to provide the legal memo on torture created for the White House. My question is where does executive privelege begin and end? I know that is a virtually impossible question to answer since the privelege is elastic. Why would the White House refuse to give the memo? Just because they were given advice, does not mean they acted upon that advice. How would the president's ability to recieve advice by harmed by giving the memo to Congress? I would think that everyone working in politics would be aware of possible scrutiny of anything they write regardless of the outcome of the executive privelage debate. Memos will always be leaked.
Any thoughts?
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